Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 05:58
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Experimental cholesterol pill cuts heart attack risk with 'convenient' once-daily dose - AOL.com
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
NASA Goddard Center-wide Email - NASA Watch
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Is there any way to simulate the effect of a sauna or steam room on the body from one's own home?
You'll usually find your answer there.